N6376m From , joined Dec 1969, posts, RR: Posted (10 years 4 months 5 days 23 hours ago) and read 3756 times:
Could someone please provide some information on the following question:
Assume that a pilot is schedule to fly from MIA to JFK and back on day. MIA flight is scheduled to leave at 8:00 AM and arrive at 10:30AM. Return leg is schedule to depart JFK at 12 noon and arrive at 2:30 PM.
Assume that weather or mechanical problems delay the departure of the return leg until 2PM so the flight arrives at 4:30PM. (Would the reason for the delay matter?)
I assume that the pilots need to show up at the operations center about an hour to an hour and a half before their first flight and spend some time at operations after their flight.
Let's use a pay rate of $100/hr for the pilot.
How would the pilot's pay for the day be calculated? Do they earn their $100/hr from 6:30AM to 4:30PM?
M717 From United States of America, joined Dec 2002, 608 posts, RR: 5 Reply 3, posted (10 years 4 months 5 days 21 hours ago) and read 3638 times:
Here in the US, most pilots are paid for block time (taxi out until taxi in) with a minimum daily pay, certain minimum pay for time away from base, or minimum pay in relation to hours on duty. There is also usually a minimum monthly guarantee, such as 70 hours.
Most companies also have a "scheduled or actual, whichever is greater" clause, so that if airborne delays are encountered, you are paid for that. For example, the flight is scheduled for 2 hours block time, but there was holding in effect upon arrival at your destination, so tha actual block time was 2:20. You would be paid for 2 hours and 20 minutes.
In your example above, the departure delay would not result in any extra pay unless it somehow affected the "duty rig", which is a minimum pay for time on duty. For example, our company pays a minimum of one hour of pay for every 2.5 hours of duty. So, if you are scheduled for a 10 hour duty day, you get a minimum of 4 hours pay. Also, most companies pay for cancelled flight.
Even though the formulas are sometimes complicated, usually you are only getting the $100/hr (as in your example) for the time you are actually flying. Not the entire time you are on duty. The only money you get for your entire time on duty is per diem, which at our company is $1.75/hr. So, cancidas is incorrect (at least at most US airlines) in assuming that you are getting paid whether you are flying or not, unless the $1.75 per diem is considered "getting paid". It is actually meant as meal expense reimbursement.
N6376m From , joined Dec 1969, posts, RR: Reply 6, posted (10 years 4 months 5 days 19 hours ago) and read 3550 times:
Thanks for the info M717. One point of clarification, does the greater of actual or scheduled then mean that they aren't "on the clock" so to speak for the hour of prep work they need to do before their flight?
M717 From United States of America, joined Dec 2002, 608 posts, RR: 5 Reply 7, posted (10 years 4 months 5 days 19 hours ago) and read 3545 times:
That is correct, the hour of prep work is not "on the clock", so to speak. It is for per diem purposes, and for calculating the duty and trip "rigs", which I explained earlier, but for straight hourly pay purposes, the clock starts at block out (or all doors closed ready for push/taxi).