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How Do Airlines (e.g. BA & AA) Decide Codeshares?  
User currently offlineSsides From United States of America, joined Feb 2001, 4059 posts, RR: 19
Posted (11 years 11 months 3 weeks 7 hours ago) and read 3961 times:

I looked at BA's list of AA codeshare cities in the US and my interest was piqued ... how does BA determine which cities it will put its code on?

For example, in Texas, BA puts its code on AA flights to Austin, El Paso, Houston, McAllen, and San Antonio (which is understandable), but also on AAEagle flights to Killeen, Tyler, San Angelo, Midland/Odessa, and Wichita Falls. I grew up in a small Texas city, and I know (with all due respect) that these cities don't produce a lot of traffic to the UK. If BA serves these cities, why not Amarillo, Lubbock, Abilene, Waco, Corpus Christi, Laredo, Longview, or Texarkana (most of which are larger markets than the above codeshare cities)?

Just curious ... I find codeshares a very interesting subject, so I'd like to get some input.

"Lose" is not spelled with two o's!!!!
4 replies: All unread, jump to last
User currently offlineUa777222 From United States of America, joined Dec 2003, 3348 posts, RR: 7
Reply 1, posted (11 years 11 months 2 weeks 6 days 22 hours ago) and read 3916 times:

It might be that Eagle flights are not OneWorld b/c they are operated by airlines other than AA. It's also not worth investing in routes that won't be flown by your customers.


"It wasn't raining when Noah built the ark."
User currently offlineSsides From United States of America, joined Feb 2001, 4059 posts, RR: 19
Reply 2, posted (11 years 11 months 2 weeks 6 days 16 hours ago) and read 3872 times:

That response makes no sense. I'm not asking about oneworld flights (all AA, Eagle, and Connection flights are oneworld), just BA codeshares. I'm asking why BA puts its code on some Eagle flights but not others.

In any event, AAEagle is wholly owned by AA; they are no longer separate airlines.

"Lose" is not spelled with two o's!!!!
User currently offlineLeskova From Germany, joined Oct 2003, 6075 posts, RR: 67
Reply 3, posted (11 years 11 months 2 weeks 6 days 16 hours ago) and read 3866 times:

I guess it probably does have to do with the amount of traffic they generate there - I really couldn't imagine any other reason... I've often wondered about the same thing - here in Germany, there are a lot of LH flights that have SQ/UA/TG/... flight numbers, but occasionally I find flights that would fit as a feeder flight, which does not have the respective "other" code on it - although here it's more or less normal for the Star airlines to also allow the booking of LH connections under LH code.

But, other than generated traffic, I really have no clue as to what else could be a deciding factor.


Smile - it confuses people!
User currently offlinePA110 From United States of America, joined Dec 2003, 2083 posts, RR: 22
Reply 4, posted (11 years 11 months 2 weeks 6 days 16 hours ago) and read 3847 times:
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Maintaining codeshares can be a fairly labor-intensive process for both parties, and due to GDS fees, can also be somewhat costly as well. Airlines identify those routes that might generate incremental business for each carrier. The extent of codesharing also depends on the level of cooperation between carriers within alliances. BA-AA is simply a codeshare deal, whereas LH-UA is a revenue sharing deal that has antitrust immunity. That's why LH-UA is far more widespread than BA-AA.

It's been swell, but the swelling has gone down.
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