Ezra From United States of America, joined Mar 2000, 476 posts, RR: 2 Posted (14 years 8 months 3 weeks 3 days 11 hours ago) and read 1366 times:
Can someone please explain to me the vagaries of how BA divide their flights at London between LHR and LGW? I understand why only certain U.S. cities are served from LHR, but as for the rest of the world there seems to be no rhyme or reason to how the airline chooses from which airport to operate. I originally believed that the more lucrative business markets were served from LHR, and leisure-oriented markets from LGW, but this is not a hard and fast rule. Any light shed on this puzzle is much appreciated.
Tailscraper From , joined Dec 1969, posts, RR:
Reply 1, posted (14 years 8 months 3 weeks 3 days 10 hours ago) and read 1340 times:
Yes, I agree, it seems like an utter mess at the moment.
I think most LGW flights are the African and Latin American services, and "selected" services to the USA (perhaps US services prefixed by a 2, ie. BA22_)
Since BA chose both LGW and LHR as bases, they should aim to develop both. I think the more traditional and "empire" routes stay at LHR.
But that's the way of the British. Give us five choices, and we'll always opt for the most difficult!