UPSMD11 From United States of America, joined May 2003, 823 posts, RR: 4 Posted (10 years 3 weeks 1 day ago) and read 4052 times:
I was looking at Flightaware this afternoon and noticed a CO flight from IAH to HNL and it was going up around MX to get across the Pacific when it looks like the most direct route would be to overfly Mexico.
Are there specific rules saying an airline cannot overfly a country or are there fees associated with this that may be greater than the fuel burn associated with longer flying?
ANother From , joined Dec 1969, posts, RR:
Reply 2, posted (10 years 3 weeks 13 hours ago) and read 3954 times:
Both Mexico and the US are signatories to the International Air Transit Agreement which gives reciprical 1st and 2nd freedom rights. ATC charges are another matter - all aircraft in US airspace pay charges to the USG regardless if they are in transit or flying to/from or within.
Mbm3 From United States of America, joined Jul 2005, 871 posts, RR: 1
Reply 5, posted (10 years 2 weeks 6 days 15 hours ago) and read 3806 times:
Quoting Juventus (Reply 3): I don't think overflying Mexico was a problem. On this particular flight, going over Mexico would have saved them 10-15 minutes, not worth the paper-work.
Makes sense. All of my flights to/from HNL have skirted the border until we hit the Pacific, usually near LAX. On the way back I understand it is not uncommon to overfly Mexico due to prevailing winds.
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