Ammunition From United Kingdom, joined Feb 2002, 1065 posts, RR: 4 Posted (12 years 7 months 4 weeks 7 hours ago) and read 3290 times:
Why is it cheaper for me to fly via another country rather than a direct fligtht from the UK?
When travelling east from the UK, on mainly long haul flights, i always find it is cheaper to fly an airline located part way to my destinations. Why is this?
An example being,
i normally fly from the UK-DEL, and british airways is always THE most expensive. I find it cheaper for me to fly an airline based on mainland europe (e.g. air france e.t.c) to asia, with a connecting flight through their hubs.
Do i just pay for convenience of a direct flight and the almost (AI) manopoly they have on this direct flight, or is there something that i am missing. I am 100% sure it would be more expensive for an airline to fly me to say CDG and then DEL, rather than a direct flight, yet the mainland european airlines always come cheaper.
The same is for travelling to the US- i dont have experience with this, but from looking at cheap ticket websites, i can normally fly via mainland europe to the US for at least the same price as say a direct fligtht from the UK to the U, or maybe even cheaper.
Im just curious, im not complaining though.
Saint Augustine- 'The world is a book and those who do not travel, read only 1 page'
Hurricane From United States of America, joined Feb 2002, 1444 posts, RR: 1
Reply 2, posted (12 years 7 months 4 weeks 7 hours ago) and read 3262 times:
I have a similar story...A few weeks back my parents were going to OGG and they wanted me to book a flight for them. On every single airline I checked, it was cheaper to make two connections rather than one. (For example: RDU-DFW-LAX-OGG was about $100 cheaper than RDU-DFW-OGG) Why would this be? Shouldn't it cost the airline more to fly a person on 3 segments rather than two? They would end up flying many more miles for much less $$$. This doesn't seem economical...