Someone83 From Norway, joined Sep 2006, 2778 posts, RR: 1 Reply 1, posted (2 years 1 month 2 weeks 18 hours ago) and read 4092 times:
Quoting LPSHobby (Thread starter): What is difference between code-share and interline agreements?
While code-share is to number a flight with another airlines flight number, interlining is more to to with connection. I.e. when to airlines interline, they can issue tickets with separate carriers as part of one itineary. Most network carriers has quite extensive interline agreements, usually including with their competitiors, such as UA and AA has interline agreements
Quoting LPSHobby (Thread starter): another question, an airline can make a code-share with 2 different airlines in the same route?
Yes, think I've seen up-to 4 different code-share partners on the same flight
enilria From Canada, joined Feb 2008, 6130 posts, RR: 13 Reply 2, posted (2 years 1 month 2 weeks 18 hours ago) and read 4083 times:
Code share is where one carrier markets its flights under another carrier's brand and IATA code. Interline simply means that they will transfer your bags between the two carriers and MAY have the connectivity to issue through boarding passes and such. The latter is often not the case.
There can be an infinite number of code shares. There is no regulation in most cases. Some countries have a limit in their bilateral, but often there is no limit.
Interline agreement also tend to allow for reaccomodation of passengers on the other carrier in the event of schedule changes or cancellations. That is at the carrier's discretion, though. Generally, a carrier will not provide alternate transportation on another carrier if there is no interline agreement in place.
LPSHobby From Brazil, joined May 2007, 139 posts, RR: 0 Reply 3, posted (2 years 1 month 2 weeks 18 hours ago) and read 4005 times:
oh, thanks for tyhe nice answers.
What I was thinking was a hopothetical situation like these: "Brasil Airlines" is a international airline that flies São Paulo-Vienna, but don´t have a domestic network in Brazil, so they would perform this line trhorugh a code-share with Gol and Austrian at the same time, spo it could feed the flight in São Paulo through Gol flights from other brazilian cities and distribute the passengers through Vienna to other european cities via a code-share with Austrian.
According the answers this is perfectly possible.
joost From Netherlands, joined Apr 2005, 3128 posts, RR: 4 Reply 5, posted (2 years 1 month 2 weeks 16 hours ago) and read 3828 times:
Quoting LPSHobby (Thread starter): another question, an airline can make a code-share with 2 different airlines in the same route?
Both ways, yes. Often, on high-frequency services, you'll see that not all codeshare partners put their code on all flights.
For example, the KLM-operated AMS-OSL flights:
KL 1147 (14:25)
= DL 9591
KL 1149 (17:05)
= DL 9591
= KQ 1149
KL 1151 (20:50)
= CZ 7624
= KQ 1151
The reason is for the connections provided. The 20:50 departure connects well from CZ's afternoon arrival from PEK. It's quite useless for DL, though, as all DL flights arrive in the morning (latest arrival 13:10 from MSP).
From the other side, an airline can also have different partners on the same route. For example, on AMS-CDG, DL codeshares on both AF and KL flights.
It doesn't occur often, though (except for routes where joint operations exist), because airlines typically select one strategic partner.
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