OK, not an A vs B war, but rather, I have a question regarding how the manufactures use percentages to make comparisons to their competitors products. Just take the most recent article in the April edition of Airways. There is a table on one of the pages that illustrates the comparisons of the A380 vs the 747-400. For example:3
The A380 transports 33% more pax than the 747-400
The A380 has a 12% greater range than the 744.
and so on, and so on.....
Now, in my eyes, yes, these percentages makes sense since the A380 IS after all a larger aircraft than the 747. So yes, the A380 does have a bigger payload, higher weight, larger dimensions, etc... My question revolves around the numbers that the manufactures come up with when they say things like (not a true amount) the A380 is 33% more economical than the 744. How does this actually make sense? While the A380 is not hugely larger than the 747, it still seats almost 100 more pax which would typically place the aircraft models in different categories. My belief continues to be that the 747 and the A380 each have their own niche market. But how can the A380 be more economical to operate than a 747 when the 747 is a smaller aircraft, with less seating, less range, and less weight?? So would this mean that the A380 would be more economical to operate than an A320 or 737? Of course not, there is a specific aircraft model for specific needs. I can understand making these comparisons with models that are very close in every category such as the 737NG family versus the A318/ 19/ 20/ 21 family or the 773ER vs the A346. the comparisons are extremely close in these cases and don't have such a drastic difference like the one you see with the 744 and the A380. But I still don't get how Boeing and Airbus come up with percentages that signify a more efficient product when the two products seem to be quite a bit different with different purposes? Can anyone shed some light on this? I admit it, Math was truly not my best subject, and even less when dealing with percentages.