One is a matter of principle (e.g. common market is an all or nothing deal), the other is in deed a matter of negotiations. If the UK forfeits EU financed, full or in part, projects in the UK and therefore releases other EU members from their commitments, that would lower the bill and so on and so forth..
Have not seen that, all I have seen is the EU stating the Brexit divorce bill is north of 60 billion or higher and that it must be agreed before any substantial trade
negotiations can take place, hence my confusion where they are now saying the UK has to determine the extent of their commitment.
so? There are different point in it:
a) the EU sees no way to get the divorce bill below 60 billion, no matter what the UK is willing to give up in return, why dance around that subject
b) It still makes no sense to talk about anything else before the invoice can be send.
Why would the UK divorce bill include EU payments to fund projects in the UK, or did the EU simply include all existing funding in their bill to determine the amount?
If the EU has made commitments in the past to invest lets say a billion in an EU project in the UK, and the UK passing on that project, it can of course lower the bill, since the EU just saved a billion form its budget.
They probably included all commitments the UK has made in the sense of "10 Billion project? We like it, we are in with our usual percentage...:"
Which is also confusing since the UK would know exactly what the EU is presently funding in the UK, maybe that is where the UK is getting their lower figure.
The UK government currently brings a notebook to meetings with the EU, the EU brings folders full of paperwork. It is sensible to assume that the UK has no clue regarding regarding its commitments as of yet, or they would have had folders full of paper....
Hopefully one side will provide more details so that person can have more informed opinions on the scope and scale of the proposed bill.
It will be public in due time...